Risk models: covariance estimation, VaR and expected shortfall
SIG · Chapter 512 min readAsked at Two Sigma, Citadel, AQR, Point72
Assumes Factor models: CAPM, Fama–French and statistical factors.
After this lesson you should be able to
- Say why a sample covariance matrix is unusable and what replaces it.
- Compute VaR and expected shortfall, and state their properties.
- Decompose portfolio risk into its contributors.
A risk model answers two questions: how much could we lose, and what is driving it. The first needs a distributional assumption you know to be wrong, and the second needs a covariance matrix you know to be badly estimated — so the craft is in managing both failures rather than pretending they are absent.
Proposition 5.1
Why the sample covariance fails
With assets you need parameters and you have observations per asset. When approaches the estimate is singular and its smallest eigenvalues are pure noise — and an optimiser inverts the matrix, loading heavily into exactly those directions.
Holds when
- 500 assets need 125,250 parameters; a year of daily data supplies 250 observations each.
- Shrinkage (Ledoit–Wolf) pulls the estimate toward a structured target and fixes conditioning and noise together.
- A factor model is the other standard answer: needs far fewer parameters and is always invertible.
Definition 5.2
Value at risk
VaR, — The loss that is exceeded with probability over a stated horizon. It is intuitive, it is embedded in regulation, and it has a serious defect: it says nothing about how bad the exceedances are, and it is not subadditive, so the VaR of a combined portfolio can exceed the sum of its parts.
Equation 5.3
Expected shortfall
The average loss in the tail beyond VaR. It is coherent — in particular subadditive — which is why regulation has moved toward it.
- Combining portfolios never increases the measured risk, which is what diversification ought to mean.
Why non-subadditivity is disqualifying. A risk measure that can *rise* when you merge two portfolios tells you that diversification made things worse, which is nonsense and also actionable nonsense: it creates an incentive to split a book across desks to report less risk. VaR can do this because it looks at a single quantile and ignores the shape beyond it, so two positions whose tails do not overlap can each show a small VaR while their combination shows a large one. Expected shortfall averages over the whole tail and cannot behave that way.
Example 5.5
A m portfolio has annual volatility. What are the daily VaR and expected shortfall under a normal assumption?
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Worked solution
- Formula
- Substitute
- Solve
- Answer
Sanity check. Expected shortfall is about above VaR under normality. With real fat tails the gap is much larger, which is the practical reason the normal assumption is dangerous at the level and worse beyond it.
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